Well This One is After a Long Time From me and I can Bet that It is One of the best.
It took all my Sleep From me ! So Do Try It.
If There is A Sequence Such that an+1 = [3an]/2. Well you Have to prove that in This sequence there can be infinite evens as well infinite odds.
Well Try It. It is a real Good one !
dude i have already told ya the solution.. naa???
ReplyDeletei m not gnna work hard again.. type it over all again.. so u better do it...
Yea.. You Told me but abhi toh kissi ne try hi nahi ki.. and I m not gonna write the largest of all solution over again.. :D
ReplyDeleteheyy man i dont think that solution was large.. it was quite small and easy one.. i mean no higher concepts were involved... just basic computation...
ReplyDeleteIf you proceed by contradiction,
ReplyDeleteif you assume a finite number of odds,
you will end up with a sequence having all numbers as 0(mod. 12), which is not possible.
Similarly, if you assume a finite number of evens,
you will end up with a sequence having all numbers as 1(mod. 12), which also is impossible.
Hence, you get the result.